Question: Playing 2/1, would you care to express your thoughts on the appropriate bids for the following hand types? Basically, minimum hands with strong-ish 4D and weak-ish 5C.
- Kx-xx-AKJx-Qxxxx ? Bid & rebid over 1S response.
- Nil – Kxxx-AKQx-Jxxxx? Bid & rebid over 1S response.
- Kxx-x-AQJx-QJxxx? Bid & rebid over 1S or 1H response.
What is the present day consensus on how to handle these hands??
Thankfully, this doesn’t come up very often. However, when it does, it can cause some confusion. There does not seem to be much written on the subject. What I do is look at my hand and consider my rebids when partner makes the expected response, in these cases: 1 Spade. Since, in all three instances, I can’t open 1C and then rebid 2D. This is a reverse showing extra HCP. Also, if I open 1C, I would not respond 2C over the 1S response. I could open 1C and rebid 1NT over 1S, but in hand 1, I have a doubleton heart and no heart stopper. That is not ideal. In hand 2, I am void in spades. Again, I would not bid 1NT with a void. So, I would open 1D, reserving the club suit for the rebid. This allows me the best option for “explaining” my hand. The worst case scenario, partner opts for a diamond game or partial with 3-3 in the minors. That can happen. In hand 3, I would raise 1S to 2S, because I have ruffing values. So, in all three instances, I would open the hand with 1D.
As a final thought, if my minor holding was something like QXXX of diamonds, or worse, and AKJXX of clubs, I would likely open 1C and treat the clubs as a six card suit and rebid 2C over the 1S response.